CHEMOTHERAPEUTIC DRUGS

PART I ANTIBIOTICS

001. What does the term “antibiotics” mean:

a) Non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms

b) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of another microorganisms

c) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that inhibit the growth of organism cells

d) Synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes

002. General principles of anti-infective therapy are:

a) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors

b) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism’s susceptibility

c) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment

d) All of the above

003. Minimal duration of antibacterial treatment usually is:

a) Not less than 1 day

b) Not less than 5 days

c) Not less than 10-14 days

d) Not less than 3 weeks

004. Rational anti-microbial combination is used to:

a) Provide synergism when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with a single agent alone

b) Provide broad coverage

c) Prevent the emergence of resistance

d) All of the above

005. Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following, EXCEPT:

a) Active transport out of a microorganism or/and hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism

b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism

c) Modification of a drug’s target

d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism

006. The statement, that some microorganisms can develop alternative metabolic pathways for rendering reactions inhibited by the drug, is:

a) True

b) False

007. All of the following drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:

a) Streptomycin

b) Penicillin

c) Co-trimoxazole

d) Chloramphenicol

008. Bactericidal effect is:

a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division

b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth

c) Destroying of bacterial cells

d) Formation of bacterial L-form

009. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Macrolides

c) Penicillins

d) All of the above

010. Bacteristatic effect is:

a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division

b) Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth

c) Destroying of bacterial cells

d) Formation of bacterial L-form

011. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect:

a) Carbapenems

b) Macrolides

c) Aminoglycosides

d) Cephalosporins

012. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure a) Penicillins

b) Cephalosporins

c) Carbapenems and monobactams

d) All groups

013. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides:

a) Neomycin

b) Doxycycline

c) Erythromycin

d) Cefotaxime

14. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems:

a) Aztreonam

b) Amoxacillin

c) Imipinem

d) Clarithromycin

015. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:

a) Ampicillin

b) Bicillin-5

c) Aztreonam

d) Imipinem

016. Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins:

a) Streptomycin

b) Cefaclor

c) Phenoxymethilpenicillin

d) Erythromycin

017. Tick the drug belonging to lincozamides:

a) Erythromycin

b) Lincomycin

c) Azithromycin

d) Aztreonam

018. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:

a) Doxycycline

b) Streptomycin

c) Clarithromycin

d) Amoxacillin

019. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:

a) Gentamycin

b) Streptomycin

c) Clindamycin

d) Neomycin

020. Tick the drug belonging to nitrobenzene derivative:

a) Clindamycin

b) Streptomycin

c) Azithromycin

d) Chloramphenicol

021. Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides:

a) Vancomycin

b) Lincomycin

c) Neomycin

d) Carbenicillin

022. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:

a) Beta-lactam antibiotics

b) Tetracyclines

c) Aminoglycosides

d) Macrolides

023. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is:

a) Erythromycin

b) Rifampin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Imipinem

024. Antibiotics altering permeability of cell membranes are:

a) Glycopeptides

b) Polymyxins

c) Tetracyclines

d) Cephalosporins

025. All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells, EXCEPT:

a) Macrolides

b) Aminoglycosides

c) Glycopeptides

d) Tetracyclines

026. Biosynthetic penicillins are effective against:

a) Gram-positive and gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirochetes, Clostridium gangrene

b) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteries

c) Gram positive cocci, viruses

d) Gram negative cocci, Rickettsia, mycotic infections

027. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:

a) Penicillin G

b) Penicillin V

c) Carbenicillin

d) Procain penicillin

028. Which of the following drugs is penicillinase resistant:

a) Oxacillin

b) Amoxacillin

c) Bicillin-5

d) Penicillin G

029. All of the following drugs demonstrate a prolonged effect, EXCEPT:

a) Penicillin G

b) Procain penicillin

c) Bicillin-1

d) Bicillin-5

030. Mechanism of penicillins’ antibacterial effect is:

a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall

b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell

c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall

d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane permeability

031. Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:

a) Clavulanic acid

b) Sulbactam

c) Tazobactam

d) All of the above

032. Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of:

a) Gram-positive microorganism infections

b) Gram-negative microorganism infections

c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect

d) Only bacteroide infections

033. Carbapenems are effective against:

a) Gram-positive microorganisms

b) Gram-negative microorganisms

c) Only bacteroide infections

d) Broad-spectum

034. All of the following antibiotics are macrolides, EXCEPT:

a) Erythromycin

b) Clarithromycin

c) Lincomycin

d) Roxythromycin

035. Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects:

a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity

b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect

c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities

d) All of the above

036. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:

a) Erythromycin

b) Gentamycin

c) Vancomycin

d) Polymyxin

037. Aminoglycosides are effective against:

a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes

b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms

d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses

038. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects:

a) Pancytopenia

b) Hepatotoxicity

c) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa

039. Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol:

a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.

b) Influences the Gram-positive microorganisms. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.

c) Influences the Gram-negative microorganisms. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.

d) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.

040. Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:

a) Nephrotoxicity

b) Pancytopenia

c) Hepatotoxicity

d) Ototoxicity

041. Choose the characteristics of lincozamides:

a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.

b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci.

c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.

d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci.

042. Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:

a) Nephrotoxicity

b) Cancerogenity

c) Pseudomembranous colitis

d) Irritation of respiratory organs

043. Choose the characteristics of vancomicin:

a) It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against Gram-negative bacteria

b) It is a glycopeptide, that alters permeability of cell membrane and is active against anaerobic bacteria

c) It is a beta-lactam antibiotic, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d) It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis and is active only against Gram-positive bacteria.

044. Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects:

a) Pseudomembranous colitis

b) Hepatotoxicity

c) “Red neck” syndrome, phlebitis

d) All of the above

045. Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:

a) Co-trimoxazol

b) Griseofulvin

c) Amphotericin B

d) Nitrofungin

046. Which of the following drugs is used for dermatomycosis treatment:

a) Nystatin

b) Griseofulvin

c) Amphotericin B

d) Vancomycin

047. Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment:

a) Griseofulvin

b) Nitrofungin

c) Myconazol

d) Streptomycin

048. All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:

a) Amphotericin B

b) Nystatin

c) Myconazol

d) Griseofulvin

049. Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:

a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis

c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis

d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability

050. Azoles have an antifungal effect because of:

a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis

c) Reduction of ergosterol synthesis

d) Inhibition of DNA synthesis

051. Which of the following drugs alters permeability of Candida cell membranes:

a) Amphotericin B

b) Ketoconazole

c) Nystatin

d) Terbinafine

052. Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:

a) Psychosis

b) Renal impairment, anemia

c) Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia

d) Bone marrow toxicity

053. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics having a polyene structure:

a) Nystatin

b) Ketoconazole

c) Griseofulvin

d) All of the above

054. All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:

a) Terbinafin

b) Amfotericin B

c) Ketoconazole

d) Myconazol

055. Characteristics of polyenes are following, except:

a) Alter the structure and functions of cell membranes

b) Broad-spectrum

c) Fungicidal effect

d) Nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity

056. Characteristics of Amfotericin B are following, EXCEPT:

a) Used for systemic mycosis treatment

b) Poor absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract

c) Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity

d) Influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane

PART II SYNTHETIC ANTIBACTERIAL DRUGS

001. Sulfonamides are effective against:

a) Bacteria and Chlamidia

b) Actinomyces

c) Protozoa

d) All of the above

002. Mechanism of sulfonamides’ antibacterial effect is:

a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

d) Activation of DNA gyrase

003. Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim:

a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides

b) Increases the antimicrobial activity

c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity

d) Increases the elimination of sulfonamides

004. Sulfonamide potency is decreased in case of co-administration with:

a) Oral hypoglycemic agents

b) Local anesthetics – derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid

c) Local anesthetics – derivatives of benzoic acid

d) Non-narcotic analgesics

005. The following measures are necessary for prevention of sulfonamide precipitation and crystalluria:

a) Taking of drinks with acid pH

b) Taking of drinks with alkaline pH

c) Taking of saline drinks

d) Restriction of drinking

006. Resorptive sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects on blood system:

a) Hemolytic anemia

b) Thrombocytopenia

c) Granulocytopenia

d) All of the above

007. Mechanism of Trimethoprim’ action is:

a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

008. Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects:

a) Hematopoietic disturbances

b) Crystalluria

c) Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea

d) All of the above

009. Tick the drug, which is effective against mycobacteria only:

a) Isoniazid

b) Streptomycin

c) Rifampin

d) Kanamycin

010. Tick the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line agents:

a) PAS

b) Isoniazid

c) Kanamycin

d) Pyrazinamide

011. Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to second-line agents:

a) Isoniazid

b) PAS

c) Rifampin

d) Streptomycin

012. Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics:

a) Isoniazid

b) PAS

c) Ethambutol

d) Rifampin

013. Tick the antimycobacterial drug – hydrazide of isonicotinic acid:

a) Rifampin

b) Isoniazid

c) Ethambutol

d) Pyrazinamide

014. Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:

a) Inhibition of protein synthesis

b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis

015. Mechanism of Rifampin action is:

a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II

d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis

016. Mechanism of Cycloserine action is:

a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis

017. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:

a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b) Inhibition of protein synthesis

c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis

d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability

018. Rifampin has the following unwanted effect:

a) Dizziness, headache

b) Loss of hair

c) Flu-like syndrome, tubular necrosis

d) Hepatotoxicity

019. Isoniazid has following unwanted effect:

a) Cardiotoxicity

b) Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

c) Loss of hair

d) Immunotoxicity

020. Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect:

a) Cardiotoxicity

b) Immunetoxicity

c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness

d) Hepatotoxicity

021. Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect:

a) Cardiotoxicity

b) Hepatotoxicity

c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness

d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

022. Mechanism of aminosalicylic acid action is:

a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

b) Inhibition of folate synthesis

c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

023. All of the following agents are the first-line antimycobacterial drugs, EXCEPT:

a) Rifampin

b) Pyrazinamide

c) Isoniazid

d) Streptomycin

024. All of the following antimycobacterial drugs have a bactericidal effect, EXCEPT:

a) Pyrazinamide

b) Streptomycin

c) Rifampin

d) Isoniazid

025. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to:

a) Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance

b) Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance

c) Decrease the antimicrobal activity

d) Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation:

026. Tick the antibacterial drug – a nitrofurane derivative:

a) Nitrofurantoin

b) Trimethoprim

c) Ciprofloxacin

d) Nystatin

027. Tick the antibacterial drug – a nitroimidazole derivative:

a) Clavulanic acid

b) Metronidazole

c) Nitrofurantoin

d) Doxycycline

028. Tick the antibacterial drug – a quinolone derivative:

a) Nitrofurantoin

b) Nalidixic acid

c) Streptomycin

d) Metronidazole

029. Tick the antibacterial drug – a fluoroquinolone derivative:

a) Chloramphenicol

b) Nitrofurantoin

c) Nalidixic acid

d) Ciprofloxacin

030. Tick the indications for nitrofuranes:

a) Infections of respiratory tract

b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts

c) Syphilis

d) Tuberculosis

031. Tick the unwanted effects of nitrofuranes:

a) Nausea, vomiting

b) Allergic reactions

c) Hemolytic anemia

d) All of the above

032. Tick the indications for Metronidazole:

a) Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis

b) Pneumonia

c) As a disinfectant

d) Influenza

033. Tick the unwanted effects of Metronidazole:

a) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis

b) Hypertension

c) Disturbances of peripheral blood circulation

d) All of the above

034. The mechanism of fluoroquinolones’ action is:

a) Inhibition of phospholipase C

b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

c) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis

d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability

035. Fluoroquinolones are active against:

a) Gram negative microorganisms only

b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only

c) Gram positive microorganisms only

d) Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae

036. Tick the unwanted effects of fluoroquinolones:

a) Hallucinations

b) Headache, dizziness, insomnia

c) Hypertension

d) Immunetoxicity

037. Tick the indications for fluoroquinolones:

a) Infections of the urinary tract

b) Bacterial diarrhea

c) Infections of the urinary and respiratory tract, bacterial diarrhea

d) Respiratory tract infections

038. The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is:

a) Gentamycin

b) Penicillin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Doxycycline

PART III ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTHELMINTIC DRUGS

001. Tick the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:

a) Chloroquine

b) Quinidine

c) Quinine

d) Sulfonamides

002. Tick the drug used for amoebiasis treatment:

a) Nitrofurantoin

b) Iodoquinol

c) Pyrazinamide

d) Mefloquine

003. Tick the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:

a) Metronidazole

b) Suramin

c) Pyrimethamine

d) Tetracycline

004. Tick the drug used for toxoplasmosis treatment:

a) Chloroquine

b) Tetracyclin

c) Suramin

d) Pyrimethamine

005. Tick the drug used for balantidiasis treatment::

a) Azitromycin

b) Tetracycline

c) Quinine

d) Trimethoprim

006. Tick the drug used for leishmaniasis treatment:

a) Pyrimethamine

b) Albendazole

c) Sodium stibogluconate

d) Tinidazole

007. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to 8-aminoquinoline derivatives:

a) Doxycycline

b) Quinidine

c) Primaquine

d) Chloroquine

008. All of the following antimalarial drugs are 4-quinoline derivatives, EXCEPT:

a) Chloroquine

b) Mefloquine

c) Primaquine

d) Amodiaquine

009. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to pyrimidine derivatives:

a) Mefloquine

b) Pyrimethamine

c) Quinidine

d) Chloroquine

010. Tick the drug used for trypanosomosis treatment:

a) Melarsoprol

b) Metronidazole

c) Tetracyclin

d) Quinidine

011. Tick the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect:

a) Mefloquine

b) Primaquine

c) Doxycycline

d) Sulfonamides

012. All of the following antimalarial drugs influence blood schizonts, EXCEPT:

a) Mefloquine

b) Chloroquine

c) Primaquine

d) Quinidine

013. Tick the antimalarial drug influencing tissue schisonts:

a) Mefloquine

b) Chloroquine

c) Quinidine

d) Primaquine

014. Tick the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:

a) Aminoglycosides

b) Tetracyclins

c) Carbapenems

d) Penicillins

015. Tick the amebecide drug for the treatment of an asymptomatic intestinal form of amebiasis:

a) Chloroquine

b) Diloxanide

c) Emetine

d) Doxycycline

016. Tick the drugs for the treatment of an intestinal form of amebiasis:

a) Metronidazole and diloxanide

b) Diloxanide and streptomycin

c) Diloxanide and Iodoquinol

d) Emetine and metronidazole

017. Tick the drug for the treatment of a hepatic form of amebiasis:

a) Diloxanide or iodoquinol

b) Tetracycline or doxycycline

c) Metronidazole or emetine

d) Erythromycin or azitromycin

018. Tick the luminal amebecide drug:

a) Metronidazole

b) Emetine

c) Doxycycline

d) Diloxanide

019. Tick the drug of choice for the treatment of extraluminal amebiasis:

a) Iodoquinol

b) Metronidazole

c) Diloxanide

d) Tetracycline

020. Tick the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes:

a) Levamisole

b) Mebendazole

c) Piperazine

d) Niclosamide

021. Tick niclosamide mechanism of action:

a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake

d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

022. Tick praziquantel mechanism of action:

a) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

b) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake

c) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

d) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

023. Tick piperazine mechanism of action:

a) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake

b) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

c) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

d) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

024. Tick the drug, a salicylamide derivative:

a) Praziquantel

b) Piperazine

c) Mebendazole

d) Niclosamide

025. Tick mebendazole mechanism of action:

a) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

b) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

c) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake

d) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

026. Tick the drug, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes:

a) Niclosamide

b) Piperazine

c) Praziquantel

d) Mebendazole

027. Tick the drug for neurocysticercosis treatment:

a) Praziquantel

b) Pyrantel

c) Piperazine

d) Bithionol

028. Tick the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment:

a) Niclosamide

b) Praziquantel

c) Bithionol

d) Pyrantel

029. Tick the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment:

a) Piperazine

b) Praziquantel

c) Pyrantel

d) Ivermectin

030. Tick the drug for trematodosis (fluke invasion) treatment:

a) Bithionol

b) Ivermectin

c) Pyrantel

d) Metronidazole

031. Tick the drug, a benzimidazole derivative:

a) Praziquantel

b) Mebendazole

c) Suramin

d) Pyrantel

032. Tick the broad spectrum drug for cestodosis, trematodosis and cycticercosis treatment:

a) Piperazine

b) Ivermectine

c) Praziquantel

d) Pyrantel

033. Tick the drug for ascaridosis and enterobiosis treatment:

a) Bithionol

b) Pyrantel

c) Praziquantel

d) Suramin

034. Tick the drug for strongiloidosis treatment:

a) Niclosamide

b) Praziquantel

c) Bithionol

d) Ivermectin

035. Tick the drug for echinococcosis treatment:

a) Suramin

b) Mebendazole or Albendazole

c) Piperazine

d) Iodoquinol

PART IV ANTIVIRAL AGENTS. AGENTS FOR CHEMOTHERAPY OF CANCER

001. All of the following antiviral drugs are the analogs of nucleosides, EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Saquinavir

d) Didanozine

002. Tick the drug, a derivative of adamantane:

a) Didanozine

b) Rimantadine

c) Gancyclovir

d) Foscarnet

003. Tick the drug, a derivative of pyrophosphate:

a) Foscarnet

b) Zidovudine

c) Vidarabine

d) Acyclovir

004. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis:

a) Interferon

b) Saquinavir

c) Amantadine

d) Acyclovir

005. Tick the drug, inhibiting uncoating of the viral RNA:

a) Vidarabine

b) Rimantadine

c) Acyclovir

d) Didanozine

006. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase:

a) Zidovudine

b) Vidarabine

c) Rimantadine

d) Gancyclovir

007. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral proteases:

a) Rimantadine

b) Acyclovir

c) Saquinavir

d) Zalcitabine

008. Tick the drug of choice for herpes and cytomegalovirus infection treatment:

a) Saquinavir

b) Interferon alfa

c) Didanozine

d) Acyclovir

009. Tick the drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:

a) Zidovudine

b) Vidarabine

c) Nevirapine

d) Gancyclovir

010. All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Zalcitabine

d) Didanozine

011. Tick the drug used for influenza A prevention:

a) Acyclovir

b) Rimantadine

c) Saquinavir

d) Foscarnet

012. Tick the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Gancyclovir

d) Trifluridine

013. Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins:

a) Amantadine

b) Saquinavir

c) Interferon alfa

d) Pencyclovir

014. Tick the drug which belongs to nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:

a) Didanosine

b) Gancyclovir

c) Nevirapine

d) Vidarabine

015. All of the following antiviral drugs are anti-influenza agents, EXCEPT:

a) Acyclovir

b) Amantadine

c) Interferons

d) Rimantadine

016. Tick the unwanted effects of zidovudine:

a) Hallucinations, dizziness

b) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia

c) Hypertension, vomiting

d) Peripheral neuropathy

017. Tick the unwanted effects of intravenous acyclovir infusion:

a) Renal insufficiency, tremors, delerium

b) Rash, diarrhea, nausea

c) Neuropathy, abdominal pain

d) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia

018. Tick the drug that can induce peripheral neuropathy and oral ulceration:

a) Acyclovire

b) Zalcitabine

c) Zidovudine

d) Saquinavir

019. Tick the unwanted effects of didanozine:

a) Hallucinations, dizziness, insomnia

b) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea

c) Hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea

d) Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea, hyperuricemia

020. Tick the unwanted effects of indinavir:

a) Hypotension, vomiting, dizziness

b) Nephrolithiasis, nausea, hepatotoxicity

c) Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, hyperuricemia

d) Anemia, neutropenia, nausea

021. Tick the drug that can induce nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain and rhinitis:

a) Acyclovire

b) Zalcitabine

c) Zidovudine

d) Saquinavir

022. All of the following effects are disadvantages of anticancer drugs, EXCEPT:

a) Low selectivity to cancer cells

b) Depression of bone marrow

c) Depression of angiogenesis

d) Depression of immune system

023. Rational combination of anticancer drugs is used to:

a) Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancer drugs with different mechanisms combination

b) Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancer drugs with the same mechanisms combination

c) Provide stimulation of immune system

d) Provide stimulation of cell proliferation

024. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of chloroethylamine:

a) Methotrexate

b) Cisplatin

c) Cyclophosphamide

d) Carmustine

025. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of ethylenimine:

a) Mercaptopurine

b) Thiotepa

c) Chlorambucil

d) Procarbazine

026. Tick the group of hormonal drugs used for cancer treatment:

a) Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

b) Glucocorticoids and gonadal hormones

c) Gonadal hormones and somatotropin

d) Insulin

027. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of alkylsulfonate:

a) Fluorouracil

b) Carboplatin

c) Vinblastine

d) Busulfan

028. Tick the anticancer drug of plant origin:

a) Dactinomycin

b) Vincristine

c) Methotrexate

d) Procarbazine

029. Action mechanism of alkylating agents is:

a) Producing carbonium ions altering protein structure

b) Producing carbonium ions altering DNA structure

c) Structural antagonism against purine and pyrimidine

d) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

030. Tick the anticancer drug, a pyrimidine antagonist:

a) Fluorouracil

b) Mercaptopurine

c) Thioguanine

d) Methotrexate

031. Methotrexate is:

a) A purine antagonist

b) A folic acid antagonist

c) An antibiotic

d) An alkylating agent

032. Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy:

a) Cytarabine

b) Doxorubicin

c) Gentamycin

d) Etoposide

033. Fluorouracil belongs to:

a) Antibiotics

b) Antimetabolites

c) Plant alkaloids

d) Bone marrow growth factor

034. Tick the action mechanism of anticancer drugs belonging to plant alkaloids:

a) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

b) Cross-linking of DNA

c) Mitotic arrest at a metaphase

d) Nonselective inhibition of aromatases

035. General contraindications for anticancer drugs are:

a) Depression of bone marrow

b) Acute infections

c) Severe hepatic and/or renal insufficiency

d) All of the above

036. Action mechanism of methotrexate is:

a) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

b) Activation of cell differentiation

c) Catabolic depletion of serum asparagine

d) All of the above

037. Tick the anticancer drug belonging to inorganic metal complexes:

a) Dacarbazine

b) Cisplatin

c) Methotrexate

d) Vincristine

038. Tick the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:

a) Leukemia

b) Cancer of prostate

c) Endometrial cancer

d) Brain tumors

039. Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia treatment:

a) Dihydrofolate reductase

b) Asparaginase

c) Aromatase

d) DNA gyrase

040. All of the following drugs are derivatives of nitrosoureas, EXCEPT:

a) Carmustine

b) Vincristine

c) Lomustine

d) Semustine

041. Tick the group of drugs used as subsidiary medicines in cancer treatment:

a) Cytoprotectors

b) Bone marrow growth factors

c) Antimetastatic agents

d) All of the above

042. Tick the estrogen inhibitor:

a) Leuprolide

b) Tamoxifen

c) Flutamide

d) Anastrozole

043. Tick the antiandrogen drug:

a) Flutamide

b) Aminoglutethimide

c) Tamoxifen

d) Testosterone

044. Tick the drug belonging to aromatase inhibitors:

a) Octreotide

b) Anastrozole

c) Flutamide

d) Tamoxifen

045. Tick the drug belonging to gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists:

a) Leuprolide

b) Tamoxifen

c) Flutamide

d) Anastrozole