AGENTS, CONTROLLING THE FUNCTIONS OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

PART I Hypnotic drugs

001. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:

a) Psychosis

b) Sleep disorders

c) Narcolepsy

d) Parkinsonian disorders

002. Hypnotic drugs should:

a) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

b) Induce absence of sensation

c) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep

d) Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar affective disorders

003. Which of the following chemical agents are used in the treatment of insomnia?

a) Benzodiazepines

b) Imidazopyridines

c) Barbiturates

d) All of the above

004. Select a hypnotic drug, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:

a) Zolpidem

b) Flurazepam

c) Secobarbital

d) Phenobarbitone

005. Tick a hypnotic agent – a barbituric acid derivative:

a) Flurazepam

b) Zaleplon

c) Thyopental

d) Triazolam

006. Select a hypnotic drug, which is an imidazopyridine derivative:

a) Pentobarbital

b) Temazepam

c) Zolpidem

d) Chloral hydrate

007. Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed slowly?

a) Phenobarbital

b) Flurazepam

c) Triazolam

d) Temazepam

008. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting drug?

a) Secobarbital

b) Amobarbital

c) Thiopental

d) Phenobarbital

009. Indicate the barbituric acid derivative, which has 4-5 days elimination half-life:

a) Secobarbital

b) Thiopental

c) Phenobarbital

d) Amobarbital

010. Indicate the hypnotic benzodiazepine, which has the shortest elimination half-life:

a) Temazepam

b) Triazolam

c) Flurazepam

d) Diazepam

011. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is more likely to cause cumulative and residual effects?

a) Zolpidem

b) Temazepam

c) Phenobarbital

d) Triazolam

012. Which of the following hypnotic drugs increases the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?

a) Phenobarbital

b) Zolpidem

c) Flurazepam

d) Zaleplon

013. Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme induction leads to:

a) Barbiturate tolerance

b) Cumulative effects

c) Development of physical dependence

d) “hangover” effects

014. Hypnotic benzodiazepines are more powerful enzyme inducers than barbiturates.

a) True

b) False

015. Indicate the hypnotic drug, which does not change hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme activity?

a) Flurazepam

b) Zaleplon

c) Triazolam

d) All of the above

016. Barbiturates increase the rate of metabolism of:

a) Anticoagulants

b) Digitalis compounds

c) Glucocorticoids

d) All of the above

017. Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic metabolism of hypnotics?

a) Flumasenil

b) Cimetidin

c) Phenytoin

d) Theophylline

018. Which of the following factors can influence the biodisposition of hypnotic agents?

a) Alterations in the hepatic function resulting from a disease

b) Old age

c) Drug-induced increases or decreases in microsomal enzyme activities

d) All of the above

019. Which of the following hypnotics is preferred for elderly patients?

a) Phenobarbital

b) Flurozepam

c) Temazepam

d) Secobarbital

020. Which of the following hypnotics is preferred in patients with limited hepatic function?

a) Zolpidem

b) Amobarbital

c) Flurozepam

d) Pentobarbital

021. Indicate the mechanism of barbiturate action (at hypnotic doses):

a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl- channel openings

b) Directly activating the chloride channels

c) Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening events

d) All of the above

022. Imidazopyridines are:

a) Partial agonists at brain 5-TH1A receptors

b) Selective agonists of the BZ1 (omega1) subtype of BZ receptors

c) Competitive antagonists of BZ receptors

d) Nonselective agonists of both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor subtypes

023. Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor function?

a) Zaleplon

b) Flurazepam

c) Zolpidem

d) All of the above

024. Indicate a hypnotic drug - a selective agonist at the BZ1 receptor subtype:

a) Flurazepam

b) Zolpidem

c) Triazolam

d) Flumazenil

025. Which of the following hypnotic agents is able to interact with both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor subtypes?

a) Zaleplon

b) Phenobarbital

c) Flurazepam

d) Zolpidem

026. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors:

a) Flumazenil

b) Picrotoxin

c) Zolpidem

d) Temazepam

027. Flumazenil blocks the actions of:

a) Phenobarbital

b) Morphine

c) Zolpidem

d) Ethanol

028. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding:

a) Flurazepam

b) Bicuculline

c) Thiopental

d) Zolpidem

029. Which of the following agents blocks the chloride channel directly?

a) Secobarbital

b) Flumazenil

c) Zaleplon

d) Picrotoxin

030. Which of the following agents is preferred in the treatment of insomnia?

a) Barbiturates

b) Hypnotic benzodiazepines

c) Ethanol

d) Phenothiazide

031. Barbiturates are being replaced by hypnotic benzodiazepines because of:

a) Low therapeutic index

b) Suppression in REM sleep

c) High potential of physical dependence and abuse

d) All of the above

032. Which of the following benzodiazepines is used mainly for hypnosis?

a) Clonozepam

b) Lorazepam

c) Flurazepam

d) Midazolam

033. Indicate the main claim for an ideal hypnotic agent:

a) Rapid onset and sufficient duration of action

b) Minor effects on sleep patterns

c) Minimal “hangover” effects

d) All of the above

034. Which stage of sleep is responsible for the incidence of dreams?

a) REM sleep

b) Slow wave sleep

c) Stage 2NREM sleep

d) All of the above

035. During slow wave sleep (stage 3 and 4 NREM sleep):

a) Dreams occur

b) The secretion of adrenal steroids is at its highest

c) Somnambulism and nightmares occur

d) The secretion of somatotropin is at its lowest

036. All of the hypnotic drugs induce:

a) Increase the duration of REM sleep

b) Decrease the duration of REM sleep

c) Do not alter the duration of REM sleep

d) Increase the duration of slow wave sleep

037. Which of the following hypnotic drugs causes least suppression of REM sleep?

a) Flumazenil

b) Phenobarbital

c) Flurazepam

d) Secobarbital

038. Although the benzodiazepines continue to be the agents of choice for insomnia, they have:

a) The possibility of psychological and physiological dependence

b) Synergistic depression of CNS with other drugs (especially alcohol)

c) Residual drowsiness and daytime sedation

d) All of the above

039. Hypnotic benzodiazepines can cause:

a) A dose-dependent increase in both REM and slow wave sleep

b) Do not change sleep patterns

c) A dose-dependent decrease in both REM and slow wave sleep

d) A dose-dependent increase in REM sleep and decrease in slow wave sleep

040. Which one of the following hypnotic benzodiazepines is more likely to cause rebound insomnia?

a) Triazolam

b) Flurazepam

c) Temazepam

d) All of the above

041. Which of the following hypnotic benzodiazepines is more likely to cause “hangover” effects such as drowsiness, dysphoria, and mental or motor depression the following day?

a) Temazepam

b) Triazolam

c) Flurazepam

d) None of the above

042. Indicate the hypnotic drug, which binds selectively to the BZ1 receptor subtype, facilitating GABAergic inhibition:

a) Thiopental

b) Zolpidem

c) Flurazepam

d) Phenobarbital

043. Which of the following statements is correct for zolpidem?

a) Causes minor effects on sleep patterns

b) The risk of development of tolerance and dependence is less than with the use of hypnotic benzodiazepines

c) Has minimal muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects

d) All of the above

044. Which agent exerts hypnotic activity with minimal muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects?

a) Flurazepam

b) Triazolam

c) Zaleplon

d) None of the above

045. Zolpidem and zaleplon have effectiveness similar to that of hypnotic benzodiazepines in the management of sleep disorders.

a) True

b) False

046. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is used intravenously as anesthesia?

a) Thiopental

b) Phenobarbital

c) Flurazepam

d) Zolpidem

047. Indicate the usual cause of death due to overdose of hypnotics:

a) Depression of the medullar respiratory center

b) Hypothermia

c) Cerebral edema

d) Status epilepticus

048. Toxic doses of hypnotics may cause a circulatory collapse as a result of:

a) Blocking alfa adrenergic receptors

b) Increasing vagal tone

c) Action on the medullar vasomotor center

d) All of the above

PART II Antiseizure drugs

001. The mechanism of action of antiseizure drugs is:

a) Enhancement of GABAergic (inhibitory) transmission

b) Diminution of excitatory (usually glutamatergic) transmission

c) Modification of ionic conductance

d) All of the above mechanisms

002. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces enhancement of GABA-mediated inhibition?

a) Ethosuximide

b) Carbamazepine

c) Phenobarbital

d) Lamotrigine

003. Indicate an antiseizure drug, which has an impotent effect on the T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons?

a) Carbamazepin

b) Lamotrigine

c) Ethosuximide

d) Phenytoin

004. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?

a) Lamotrigine

b) Carbamazepin

c) Phenytoin

d) All of the above

005. Indicate an antiseizure drug, inhibiting central effects of excitatory amino acids:

a) Ethosuximide

b) Lamotrigine

c) Diazepam

d) Tiagabine

006. The drug for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures is:

a) Carbamazepine

b) Valproate

c) Phenytoin

d) All of the above

007. Indicate an anti-absence drug:

a) Valproate

b) Phenobarbital

c) Carbamazepin

d) Phenytoin

008. The drug against myoclonic seizures is:

a) Primidone

b) Carbamazepine

c) Clonazepam

d) Phenytoin

009. The most effective drug for stopping generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus in adults is:

a) Lamotrigine

b) Ethosuximide

c) Diazepam

d) Zonisamide

010. Select the appropriate consideration for phenytoin:

a) It blocks sodium channels

b) It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the openings of the Cl-channels

c) It effects on Ca2+ currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current

d) It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA

011. Phenytoin is used in the treatment of:

a) Petit mal epilepsy

b) Grand mal epilepsy

c) Myoclonic seizures

d) All of the above

012. Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:

a) Physical and psychological dependence

b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy

c) Gingival hyperplasia

d) Extrapyramidal symptoms

013. Granulocytopenia, gastrointestinal irritation, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are possible adverse effects of:

a) Phenobarbital

b) Carbamazepin

c) Valproate

d) Phenytoin

014. The antiseizure drug, which induces hepatic microsomal enzymes, is:

a) Lamotrigine

b) Phenytoin

c) Valproate

d) None of the above

015. The drug of choice for partial seizures is:

a) Carbamazepin

b) Ethosuximide

c) Diazepam

d) Lamotrigine

016. The mechanism of action of carbamazepine appears to be similar to that of:

a) Benzodiazepines

b) Valproate

c) Phenytoin

d) Ethosuximide

017. Which of the following antiseizure drugs is also effective in treating trigeminal neuralgia?

a) Primidone

b) Topiramat

c) Carbamazepine

d) Lamotrigine

018. The most common dose-related adverse effects of carbamazepine are:

a) Diplopia, ataxia, and nausea

b) Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

c) Sedation, physical and psychological dependence

d) Hemeralopia, myasthenic syndrome

019. Indicate the drug of choice for status epilepticus in infants and children:

a) Phenobarbital sodium

b) Clonazepam

c) Ethosuximide

d) Phenytoin

020. Barbiturates are used in the emergency treatment of status epilepticus in infants and children because of:

a) They significantly decrease of oxygen utilization by the brain, protecting cerebral edema and ischemia

b) Short onset and duration of action

c) They do not have effect on sleep architecture

d) All of the above

021. Which of the following antiseizure drugs binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor, increases the duration of the Cl-channels openings:

a) Diazepam

b) Valproate

c) Phenobarbital

d) Topiramate

022. Adverse effect caused by phenobarbital is:

a) Physical and phychological dependence

b) Exacerbated petit mal epilepsy

c) Sedation

d) All of the above

023. Which of the following antiseizure drugs is a prodrug, metabolized to phenobarbital?

a) Phenytoin

b) Primidone

c) Felbamate

d) Vigabatrin

024. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a phenyltriazine derivative:

a) Phenobarbital

b) Clonazepam

c) Lamotrigine

d) Carbamazepin

025. Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of:

a) Partial seizures

b) Absence

c) Myoclonic seizures

d) All of the above

026. The mechanism of vigabatrin′s action is:

a) Direct action on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex

b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase

c) NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine binding site

d) Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from synapses

027. Indicate an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase (GABA-T):

a) Diazepam

b) Phenobarbital

c) Vigabatrin

d) Felbamate

028. Tiagabine:

a) Blocks neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA from synapses

b) Inhibits GABA-T, which catalyzed the breakdown of GABA

c) Blocks the T-type Ca2+ channels

d) Inhibits glutamate transmission at AMPA/kainate receptors

029. The mechanism of both topiramate and felbamate action is:

a) Reduction of excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission

b) Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels

c) Potentiation of GABAergic neuronal transmission

d) All of the above

030. The drug of choice in the treatment of petit mal (absence seizures) is:

a) Phenytoin

b) Ethosuximide

c) Phenobarbital

d) Carbamazepin

031. The dose-related adverse effect of ethosuximide is:

a) Gastrointestinal reactions, such as anorexia, pain, nausea and vomiting

b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy

c) Transient lethargy or fatigue

d) All of the above

032. Valproate is very effective against:

a) Absence seizures

b) Myoclonic seizures

c) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures

d) All of the above

033. The drug of choice in the treatment of myoclonic seizures is:

a) Valproate

b) Phenobarbital

c) Phenytoin

d) Felbamate

034. The reason for preferring ethosuximide to valproate for uncomplicated absence seizures is:

a) More effective

b) Valproate′s idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity

c) Greater CNS depressant activity

d) All of the above

035. The mechanism of valproate action is:

a) Facilitation glutamic acid decarboxylase, the enzyme responsible for GABA synthesis and inhibition of GABAaminotransferase, the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of GABA (enhance GABA accumulation) b) Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels

c) Inhibition of low threshold (T-type) Ca2+ channels

d) All of the above

036. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a sulfonamide derivative, blocking Na+ channels and having additional ability to inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels:

a) Tiagabine

b) Zonisamide

c) Ethosuximide

d) Primidone

037. Indicate the antiseizure drug – a benzodiazepine receptor agonist:

a) Phenobarbital

b) Phenytoin

c) Carbamazepine

d) Lorazepam

038. Which of the following antiseizure drugs acts directly on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex?

a) Vigabatrin

b) Diazepam

c) Gabapentin

d) Valproate

039. Benzodiazepine΄s uselfulness is limited by:

a) Tolerance

b) Atropine-like symptoms

c) Psychotic episodes

d) Myasthenic syndrome

040. A long-acting drug against both absence and myoclonic seizures is:

a) Primidone

b) Carbamazepine

c) Clonazepam

d) Phenytoin

041. Which of the following antiseizure drugs may produce teratogenicity?

a) Phenytoin

b) Valproate

c) Topiramate

d) All of the above

042. The most dangerous effect of antiseizure drugs after large overdoses is:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Gastrointestinal irritation

c) Alopecia

d) Sedation

PART III Antiparkinsonian agents

001. Which neurons are involved in parkinsonism?

a) Cholinergic neurons

b) GABAergic neurons

c) Dopaminergic neurons

d) All of the above

002. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:

a) A selective loss of dopaminergic neurons

b) The loss of some cholinergic neurons

c) The loss of the GABAergic cells

d) The loss of glutamatergic neurons

003. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in Parkinson′s disease?

a) Acetylcholine

b) Glutamate

c) Dopamine

d) All of the above

004. The concentration of dopamine in the basal ganglia of the brain is reduced in parkinsonism.

a) True

b) False

005. Principal aim for treatment of Parkinsonian disorders is:

a) To restore the normal balance of cholinergic and dopaminergic influences on the basal ganglia with antimuscarinic drugs

b) To restore dopaminergic activity with levodopa and dopamine agonists

c) To decrease glutamatergic activity with glutamate antagonists

d) All of the above

006. Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian syndromes:

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Diazepam

c) Triazolam

d) Carbamazepine

007. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Parkinsonian disorders?

a) Phenytoin

b) Selegiline

c) Haloperidol

d) Fluoxetine

008. Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment of the drug-induced form of parkinsonism:

a) Levodopa

b) Bromocriptine

c) Benztropine

d) Dopamine

009. Which of the following agents is the precursor of dopamine?

a) Bromocriptine

b) Levodopa

c) Selegiline

d) Amantadine

010. The main reason for giving levodopa, the precursor of dopamine, instead of dopamine is:

a) Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier

b) Dopamine may induce acute psychotic reactions

c) Dopamine is intensively metabolized in humans

d) All of the above

011. Indicate a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor:

a) Tolcapone

b) Clozapine

c) Carbidopa

d) Selegiline

012. The mechanism of carbidopa′s action is:

a) Stimulating the synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine

b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase

c) Stimulating dopamine receptors

d) Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase

013. Carbidopa is unable to penetrate the blood-brain barrier, it acts to reduce the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine.

a) True

b) False

014. When carbidopa and levodopa are given concomitantly:

a) Levodopa blood levels are increased, and drug half-life is lengthened

b) The dose of levodopa can be significantly reduced (by 75%), also reducing toxic side effects

c) A shorter latency period precedes the occurrence of beneficial effects

d) All of the above

015. Which of the following preparations combines carbidopa and levodopa in a fixed proportion?

a) Selegiline

b) Sinemet

c) Tolkapone

d) Biperiden

016. Which of the following statements is correct for levodopa?

a) Tolerance to both beneficial and adverse effects develops gradually

b) Levodopa is most effective in the first 2-5 years of treatment

c) After 5 years of therapy, patients have dose-related dyskinesias, inadequate response or toxicity

d) All of the above

017. Gastrointestinal irritation, cardiovascular effects, including tachycardia, arrhythmias, and orthostatic hypotension, mental disturbances, and withdrawal are possible adverse effects of:

a) Amantadine

b) Benztropine

c) Levodopa

d) Selegiline

018. Which of the following agents is the most helpful in counteracting the behavioral complications of levodopa?

a) Tolkapone

b) Clozapine

c) Carbidopa

d) Pergolide

019. Which of the following vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by enhancing its extracerebral metabolism?

a) Pyridoxine

b) Thiamine

c) Tocopherol

d) Riboflavin

020. Which of the following drugs antagonizes the effects of levodopa because it leads to a junctional blockade of dopamine action?

a) Reserpine

b) Haloperidol

c) Chlorpromazine

d) All of the above

021. Levodopa should not be given to patients taking:

a) Bromocriptine

b) Monoamine oxydase A inhibitors

c) Carbidopa

d) Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists

022. Indicate D2 receptor agonist with antiparkinsonian activity:

a) Sinemet

b) Levodopa

c) Bromocriptine

d) Selegiline

023. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs has also been used to treat hyperprolactinemia?

a) Benztropine

b) Bromocriptine

c) Amantadine

d) Levodopa

024. Indicate a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B:

a) Levodopa

b) Amantadine

c) Tolcapone

d) Selegiline

025. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin

b) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin

c) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine

d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin

026. Treatment with selegilin postpones the need for levodopa for 3-9 months and may retard the progression of Parkinson′s disease.

a) True

b) False

027. The main reason for avoiding the combined administration of levodopa and an inhibitor of both forms of monoamine oxidase is:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Hypertensive emergency

c) Acute psychotic reactions

d) Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression

028. Indicate selective catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism:

a) Carbidopa

b) Clozapine

c) Tolcapone

d) Rasagiline

029. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs is an antiviral agent used in the prophylaxis of influenza A2? a) Selegiline

b) Sinemet

c) Pergolide

d) Amantadine

030. The mechanism of amantadine action is:

a) Stimulating the glutamatergic neurotransmission

b) Blocking the excitatory cholinergic system

c) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase

d) Selective inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase

031. Which of the following antiparkinsonism drugs is an anticholinergic agent?

a) Amantadine

b) Selegilin

c) Trihexyphenidyl

d) Bromocriptine

032. Mental confusion and hallucinations, peripheral atropine-like toxicity (e.g. Cycloplegia, tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation) are possible adverse effects of:

a) Sinemet

b) Benztropine

c) Tolkapone

d) Bromocriptine

033. Indicate the antiparkinsonism drug which should be avoided in patients with glaucoma: a) Selegilin

b) Levodopa

c) Bromocriptine

d) Trihexyphenidyl

PART IV Ethyl alcohol

001. Alcohol may cause:

a) CNS depression

b) Vasodilatation

c) Hypoglycemia

d) All of the above

002. Alcohol:

a) Increases body temperature

b) Decreases body heat loss

c) Increases body heat loss

d) Does not affect body temperature

003. It is undesirable to take alcohol before going outdoors when it extremely cold, but it may be harmless to take some after coming into a warm place from the cold.

a) True

b) False

004. The most common medical complication of alcohol abuse is:

a) Liver failure including liver cirrhosis

b) Tolerance and physical dependence

c) Generalized symmetric peripheral nerve injury, ataxia and dementia

d) All of the above

005. Effect of moderate consumption of alcohol on plasma lipoproteins is:

a) Raising serum levels of high-density lipoproteins

b) Increasing serum concentration of low-density lipoproteins

c) Decreasing the concentration of high-density lipoproteins

d) Raising serum levels of very low-density lipoproteins

006. Which of the following metabolic alterations may be associated with chronic alcohol abuse?

a) Hyperglycemia

b) Increased serum concentration of phosphate

c) Severe loss of potassium and magnesium

d) Decreased serum concentration of sodium

007. Alcohol potentiates:

a) SNS depressants

b) Vasodilatators

c) Hypoglycemic agents

d) All of the above

008. Which of the following drugs is most commonly used for causing a noxious reaction to alcohol by blocking its metabolism?

a) Naltrexone

b) Disulfiram

c) Diazepam

d) Morphine

009. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase?

a) Fomepizole

b) Ethanol

c) Disulfiram

d) Naltrexone

010. Indicate the drug, which alters brain responses to alcohol:

a) Naltrexone

b) Disulfiram

c) Amphetamine

d) Chlorpromazine

011. Which of the following agents is an opioid antagonist?

a) Amphetamine

b) Naltrexone

c) Morphine

d) Disulfiram

012. Alcohol causes an acute increase in the local concentrations of:

a) Dopamine

b) Opioid

c) Serotonine

d) All of the above

013. Management of alcohol withdrawal syndrome contains:

a) Restoration of potassium, magnesium and phosphate balance

b) Thiamine therapy

c) Substituting a long-acting sedative-hypnotic drug for alcohol

d) All of the above

014. Indicate the drug, which decreases the craving for alcohol or blunts pleasurable “high” that comes with renewed drinking:

a) Disulfiram

b) Amphetamine

c) Naltrexone

d) Diazepam

015. The symptoms resulting from the combination of disulfiram and alcohol are:

a) Hypertensive crisis leading to cerebral ischemia and edema

b) Nausea, vomiting

c) Respiratory depression and seizures

d) Acute psychotic reactions

016. The combination of disulfiram and ethanol leads to accumulation of:

a) Formaldehyde

b) Acetate

c) Formic acid

d) Acetaldehyde

017. The combination of naltrexone and disulfiram should be avoided since both drugs are potential hepatotoxins.

a) True

b) False

018. Indicate the “specific” modality of treatment for severe methanol poisoning:

a) Dialysis to enhance removal of methanol

b) Alkalinization to counteract metabolic acidosis

c) Suppression of metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase to toxic products

d) All of the above

019. Which of the following agents may be used as an antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning?

a) Disulfiram

b) Fomepizol

c) Naltrexone

d) Amphetamine

020. The principal mechanism of fomepizol action is associated with inhibition of:

a) Aldehyde dehydrogenase

b) Acethylholinesterase

c) Alcohol dehydrogenase

d) Monoamine oxidase

PART V NARCOTIC ANALGESICS

001. Narcotics analgesics should:

a) Relieve severe pain

b) Induce loss of sensation

c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state

002. Second-order pain is:

a) Sharp, well-localized pain

b) Dull, burning pain

c) Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

d) Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

003. Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Enkephalins

b) Kinins

c) Prostaglandins

d) Substance P

004. Indicate the chemical mediator in the antinociceptive descending pathways:

a) BETA-endorphin

b) Met- and leu-enkephalin

c) Dynorphin

d) All of the above

005. Which of the following mediators is found mainly in long descending pathways from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

a) Prostaglandin E

b) Dynorphin

c) Enkephalin

d) Glutamate

006. Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

a) The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

b) The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

c) The substantia gelatinosa

d) All of the above

007. Mu (μ) receptors are associated with:

a) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

b) Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

c) Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

d) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

008. Which of the following opioid receptor types is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

a) Kappa-receptors

b) Delta-receptors

c) Mu-receptors

d) All of the above

009. Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

a) Kappa-receptors

b) Delta-receptors

c) Mu-receptors

d) All of the above

010. Kappa and delta agonists:

a) Inhibit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

b) Close a voltage-gated Ca2+ channels on presynaptic nerve terminals

c) Both a and b

d) Inhibit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

011. Which of the following supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

a) The midbrain periaqueductal gray

b) The hypothalamus

c) The aria postrema

d) The limbic cortex

012. Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

a) Dopaminergic

b) Serotoninergic

c) Nonadrenergic

d) Gabaergic

013. Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative?

a) Fentanyl

b) Morphine

c) Methadone

d) Pentazocine

014. Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

a) Codeine

b) Dezocine

c) Fentanyl

d) Buprenorphine

015. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

a) Naloxone

b) Morphine

c) Pentazocine

d) Buprenorphine

016. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, which is a natural agonist:

a) Meperidine

b) Fentanyl

c) Morphine

d) Naloxone

017. Select the narcotic analgesic, which is an antagonist or partial mu receptor agonist:

a) Fentanyl

b) Pentazocine

c) Codeine

d) Methadone

018. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

a) Meperidine

b) Buprenorphine

c) Naloxone

d) Butorphanol

019. The principal central nervous system effect of the opioid analgesics with affinity for a mu receptor is:

a) Analgesia

b) Respiratory depression

c) Euphoria

d) All of the above

020. Which of the following opioid analgesics can produce dysphoria, anxiety and hallucinations?

a) Morphine

b) Fentanyl

c) Pentazocine

d) Methadone

021. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which has 80 times analgesic potency and respiratory depressant properties of morphine, and is more effective than morphine in maintaining hemodynamic stability?

a) Fentanyl

b) Pentazocine

c) Meperidine

d) Nalmefene

022. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in combination with droperidol in neuroleptanalgesia?

a) Morphine

b) Buprenorphine

c) Fentanyl

d) Morphine

023. Fentanyl can produce significant respiratory depression by:

a) Inhibiting brain stem respiratory mechanisms

b) Suppression of the cough reflex leading to airway obstruction

c) Development of truncal rigidity

d) Both a and c

024. Most strong mu receptor agonists cause:

a) Hypertension

b) Increasing the pulmonary arterial pressure and myocardial work

c) Cerebral vasodilatation, causing an increase in intracranial pressure d) All of the above

025. Which of the following opioid analgesics can produce an increase in the pulmonary arterial pressure and myocardial work?

a) Morphine

b) Pentazocine

c) Meperidine

d) Methadone

026. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:

a) Constipation

b) Dilatation of the biliary duct

c) Urinary retention

d) Bronchiolar constriction

027. Therapeutic doses of the opioid analgesics:

a) Decrease body temperature

b) Increase body temperature

c) Decrease body heat loss

d) Do not affect body temperature

028. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in obstetric labor?

a) Fentanyl

b) Pentazocine

c) Meperidine

d) Buprenorphine

029. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which is used for relieving the acute, severe pain of renal colic:

a) Morphine

b) Naloxone

c) Methadone

d) Meperidine

030. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema?

a) Morphine

b) Codeine

c) Fentanyl

d) Loperamide

031. The relief produced by intravenous morphine in dyspnea from pulmonary edema is associated with reduced:

a) Perception of shortness of breath

b) Patient anxiety

c) Cardiac preload (reduced venous tone) and afterload (decreased peripheral resistance)

d) All of the above

032. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are effects of:

a) Tolerance

b) Opioid overdosage

c) Drug interactions between opioid analgesics and sedative-hypnotics

d) Abstinence syndrome

033. The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:

a) Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation

b) Coma, depressed respiration and miosis

c) Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps

d) Miosis, tremor and vomiting

034. Which of the following opioid agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose? a) Pentazocine

b) Methadone

c) Naloxone

d) Remifentanyl

035. Indicate the pure opioid antagonist, which has a half-life of 10 hours:

a) Naloxone

b) Naltrexone

c) Tramadol

d) Pentazocine

036. In contrast to morphine, methadone:

a) Causes tolerance and physical dependence more slowly

b) Is more effective orally

c) Withdrawal is less severe, although more prolonged

d) All of the above

037. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a partial mu receptor agonist?

a) Morphine

b) Methadone

c) Buprenorphine

d) Sufentanyl

038. Indicate a partial mu receptor agonist, which has 20-60 times analgesic potency of morphine, and a longer duration of action:

a) Pentazocine

b) Buprenorphine

c) Nalbuphine

d) Naltrexone

039. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist?

a) Naltrexone

b) Methadone

c) Nalbuphine

d) Buprenorphine

040. Which of the following drugs has weak mu agonist effects and inhibitory action on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?

a) Loperamide

b) Tramadol

c) Fluoxetine

d) Butorphanol

PART VI Non-narcotic analgesics

001. Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

a) Inflammation or tissue damage

b) Trauma

c) Myocardial infarction

d) Surgery

002. Non-narcotic agents cause:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Antipyretic effect

c) Euphoria

d) Physical dependence

003. Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

a) Paracetamol

b) Acetylsalicylic acid

c) Butorphanol

d) Ketorolac

004. Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a paraaminophenol derivative:

a) Analgin

b) Aspirin

c) Baclophen

d) Paracetamol

005. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

a) Phenylbutazone

b) Ketamine

c) Aspirin

d) Tramadol

006. Tick pirazolone derivative:

a) Methylsalicylate

b) Analgin

c) Paracetamol

d) Ketoralac

007. Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?

a) Paracetamol

b) Ketorolac

c) Acetylsalicylic acid

d) Ibuprofen

008. Most of non-narcotic analgetics have:

a) Anti-inflammatory effect

b) Analgesic effect

c) Antipyretic effect

d) All of the above

009. Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

a) Naloxone

b) Paracetamol

c) Metamizole

d) Aspirin

010. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) It inhibits mainly peripheral COX

b) It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

c) It inhibits platelet aggregation

d) It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

011. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

b) Peptic ulcers

c) Thromboembolism

d) Metabolic acidosis

012. All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

a) Gastritis with focal erosions

b) Tolerance and physical addiction

c) Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

d) Reversible renal insufficiency

013. Characteristic findinds of salicylism include:

a) Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

b) Tinnitus and difficulty in hearing

c) Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

d) All of the above

014. Analgin usefulness is limited by:

a) Agranulocytosis

b) Erosions and gastric bleeding

c) Methemoglobinemia

d) Hearing impairment

015. Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

a) Aspirin

b) Paracetamol

c) Analgin

d) Ketorolac

016. Correct the statements concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) It inhibits COX

b) It is as effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

c) It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

d) It does not produce respiratory depression

017. Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity:

a) Reserpine

b) Propranolol

c) Clopheline

d) Prazosin

018. Select the antiseizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

a) Carbamazepine

b) Ethosuximide

c) Phenytoin

d) Clonazepam

019. Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

a) Fluoxetine

b) Moclobemide

c) Tranylcypramine

d) Amitriptyline

020. Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

a) Paracetamol

b) Tramadol

c) Sodium valproate

d) Butorphanol

PART VII Antipsychotic agents

001. Neuroleptics are used to treat:

a) Neurosis

b) Psychosis

c) Narcolepsy

d) Parkinsonian disorders

002. Most antipsychotic drugs:

a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor

b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor

d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor

003. Which of the following dopaminergic systems is most closely related to behavior?

a) The hypothalamic-pituitary system

b) The extrapyramidal system

c) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems

d) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

004. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in:

a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

b) The pituitary

c) The extrapiramidal system

d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems

005. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in:

a) The nigrostriatal system

b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems

c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

d) The tuberoinfundibular system

006. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:

a) Levodopa

b) Benztropine mesylate

c) Bromocriptine

d) Dopamine

007. Which of the following statements is true?

a) D1 postsynaptic receptors are located in striatum

b) D2 pre- and postsynaptic receptors are located in striatum and limbic areas

c) D4 postsynaptic receptors are located in frontal cortex, mesolimbic system

d) All of the above

008. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is typical?

a) Clozapine

b) Quetiapine

c) Haloperidol

d) Olanzapine

009. Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:

a) Haloperidol

b) Clozapine

c) Thioridazine

d) Thiothixene

010. Atypical antipsychotic agents (such as clozapine) differ from typical ones:

a) In reduced risks of extrapyramidal system dysfunction and tardive dyscinesia

b) In having low affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine receptors

c) In having high affinity for D4 dopamine receptors

d) All of the above

011. Tardive dyskinesia is the result of:

a) Degeneration of dopaminergic and cholinergic fibers

b) Hyperactive dopaminergic state in the presence of dopamine blockers

c) Degeneration of histaminergic fibers

d) Supersensitivity of cholinergic receptors in the caudate-putamen

012. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high affinity for D4 and 5-HT2 receptors? a) Clozapine

b) Fluphenazine

c) Thioridazine

d) Haloperidole

013. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:

a) Thiothixene

b) Risperidone

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Clozapine

014. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a butyrophenone derivative:

a) Droperidol

b) Thioridazine

c) Sertindole

d) Fluphenazine

015. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene derivative:

a) Haloperidol

b) Clozapine

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Thiothixene

016. Indicate the antipsychotic agent – a dibenzodiazepine derivative:

a) Fluphenazine

b) Clozapine

c) Risperidone

d) Droperidol

017. The strong antiemetic effect of the phenothiazine derivatives is due to dopamine receptor blockade:

a) In the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

b) Of the receptors in the stomach

c) The medullar vomiting centre

d) All of the above

018. Phenothiazine derivatives are able to:

a) Alter temperature-regulating mechanisms producing hypothermia

b) Decrease levels of prolactin

c) Increase corticotrophin release and secretion of pituitary growth hormone

d) Decrease appetite and weight

019. Most phenothiazine derivatives have:

a) Antihistaminic activity

b) Anticholinergic activity

c) Antidopaminergic activity

d) All of the above

020. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having significant peripheral alpha-adrenergic blocking activity:

a) Haloperidol

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Clozapine

d) Risperidone

021. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having a muscarinic-cholinergic blocking activity:

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Clorprothixene

c) Risperidone

d) Haloperidol

022. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having H1-antihistaminic activity:

a) Clozapine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Olanzapine

d) All of the above

023. Parkinson′s syndrome, acute dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia, antimuscarinic actions, orthostatic hypotension, galactorrhea are possible adverse effects of:

a) Haloperidol

b) Clozapine

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Risperidone

024. Orthostatic hypotension can occur as a result of:

a) The central action of phenothiazines

b) Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms

c) Alpha adrenoreceptor blockade

d) All of the above

025. Adverse peripheral effects, such as loss of accommodation, dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation are related to:

a) Alpha adrenoreceptor blockade

b) Muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade

c) Supersesitivity of the dopamine receptor

d) Dopamine receptor blockade

026. Which of the following phenothiazine derivatives is a potent local anesthetic?

a) Fluphenazine

b) Thioridazine

c) Chlorpromazine

d) None of the above

027. Which of the following phenothiazine derivatives may produce cardiac toxicity, including ventricular arrhythmias, cardiac conduction block, and sudden death?

a) Thioridazine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Perphenazine

d) Fluphenazine

028. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is preferable in patients with coronary and cerebrovascular disease?

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Fluphenazine

c) Haloperidol

d) Perphenazine

029. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is used in combination with an opioid drug fentanyl in neuroleptanalgesia?

a) Haloperidol

b) Droperidol

c) Chlorpromazine

d) Clozapine

030. The mechanism of haloperidol antipsychotic action is:

a) Blocking D2 receptors

b) Central alpha-adrenergic blocking

c) Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms

d) All of the above

031. Which of the following statements is correct for clozapine?

a) Has potent anticholinergic activity

b) Has high affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine receptors

c) Produces significant extrapyramidal toxicity

d) Is related to typical antipsychotic agents

032. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has the high risk of potentially fatal agranulocytosis and risk of seizures at high doses?

a) Haloperidol

b) Risperidone

c) Clozapine

d) Chlorpromazine

033. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high affinity for D2 and 5-HT2 receptors? a) Droperidol

b) Clozapine

c) Thiothixene

d) Risperidone

034. Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of:

a) Petit mal seizures

b) Bipolar disorder

c) Neurosis

d) Trigeminal neuralgia

035. The drug of choice for manic-depressive psychosis is:

a) Imipramine

b) Chlordiazepoxide

c) Isocarboxazid

d) Lithium carbonate

036. The lithium mode of action is:

a) Effect on electrolytes and ion transport

b) Effect on neurotransmitters

c) Effect on second messengers

d) All of the above

037. Which of the following statements is correct for lithium?

a) Stimulate dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors

b) Decrease catecholamine-related activity

c) Stimulate the development of dopamine receptor supersensitivity

d) Decrease cholinergic activity

038. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with lithium treatment?

a) Cardiovascular anomalies in the newborn

b) Thyroid enlargement

c) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

d) All of the above

PART VIII Antidepressant agents

001. The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents is:

a) Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors

b) Inhibition of the storage of serotonin and epinephrine in the vesicles of presynaptic nerve endings

c) Blocking epinephrine or serotonin reuptake pumps

d) Stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors

002. Which of the following agents is related to tricyclic antidepressants?

a) Nefazodon

b) Amitriptyline

c) Fluoxetine

d) Isocarboxazid

003. Indicate the second-generation heterocyclic drug:

a) Maprotiline

b) Imipramine

c) Phenelzine

d) Fluoxetine

004. Which of the following agents is related to the third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants?

a) Amitriptyline

b) Maprotiline

c) Nefazodone

d) Tranylcypromine

005. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

a) Phenelzine

b) Desipramine

c) Maprotiline

d) Fluoxetine

006. Which of the following antidepressant agents is a selective inhibitor of norepinephrine reuptake?

a) Fluvoxamine

b) Maprotiline

c) Amitriptyline

d) Tranylcypromine

007. Indicate the antidepressant, which blocks the reuptake pumps for serotonin and norepinephrine:

a) Amitriptyline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Maprotiline

d) Phenelzine

008. Which of the following antidepressants is an unselective MAO blocker and produces extremely long-lasting inhibition of the enzyme?

a) Moclobemide

b) Tranylcypramine

c) Selegiline

d) Fluoxetine

009. Indicate the irreversible MAO inhibitor, which is a hydrazide derivative:

a) Moclobemide

b) Selegiline

c) Tranylcypramine

d) Phenelzine

010. Which of the following MAO inhibitors has amphetamine-like activity and is related to nonhydrazide derivatives:

a) Phenelzine

b) Moclobemide

c) Tranylcypramine

d) All of the above

011. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective short-acting MAO-A inhibitor?

a) Maprotiline

b) Amitriptyline

c) Moclobemide

d) Selegiline

012. Monoamine Oxydase A:

a) Is responsible for norepinephrine, serotonin, and tyramine metabolism

b) Is more selective for dopamine

c) Metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine

d) Deaminates dopamine and serotonin

013. Which synapses are involved in depression?

a) Dopaminergic synapses

b) Serotoninergic synapses

c) Cholinergic synapses

d) All of the above

014. Block of which type of Monoamine Oxydase might be more selective for depression?

a) MAO-A

b) MAO-B

c) Both MAO-A and MAO-B

d) MAO-C

015. The principal mechanism of MAO inhibitor action is:

a) Blocking the amine reuptake pumps, which permits to increase the concentration of the neurotransmitter at the receptor site

b) Blocking a major degradative pathway for the amine neurotransmitters, which permits more amines to accumulate in presynaptic stores

c) Inhibition the storage of amine neurotransmitters in the vesicles of presynaptic nerve endings

d) Antagonism of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors

016. The irreversible MAO inhibitors have a very high risk of developing:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression

c) Hypertensive reactions to tyramine ingested in food

d) Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

017. The most dangerous pharmacodynamic interaction is between MAO inhibitors and:

a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

b) Tricyclics

c) Sympathomimetics

d) All of the above

018. Serotonin syndrome is a result of:

a) Increased stores of monoamine

b) Significant accumulation of amine neurotransmitters in the synapses

c) Both a and b

d) Depleted stores of biogenic amines

019. The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of:

a) 2-3 days

b) 2-3 weeks

c) 24 hours

d) 2-3 month

020. Which of the following antidepressants may have latency period as short as 48 hours? a) Tranylcypromine

b) Imipramine

c) Fluoxetine

d) Amitrityline

021. Which of the following features do MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants have in common?

a) Act postsynaptically to produce their effect

b) Can precipitate hypotensive crises if certain foods are ingested

c) Increase levels of biogenic amines

d) Are useful for the manic phase of bipolar disorder

022. Tricyclic antidepressants are:

a) Highly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

c) Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

d) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors

023. Which of the following autonomic nervous system effects is common for tricyclic antidepressants?

a) Antimuscarinic action

b) Antihistaminic action

c) Alfa adrenoreceptor-blocking action

d) All of the above

024. Indicate an effective antidepressant with minimal autonomic toxicity:

a) Amitrityline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Imipramine

d) Doxepin

025. Fluoxetine has fewer adverse effects because of:

a) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition

b) Depleted stores of amine neurotransmitters

c) Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic receptors

d) All of the above

026. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic antidepressants has the greatest sedation?

a) Doxepin

b) Amitriptyline

c) Trazodone

d) All of the above

027. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic agents has the least sedation?

a) Protriptyline

b) Trazodone

c) Amitriptyline

d) Mitrazapine

028. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant having greatest antimuscarinic effects:

a) Desipramine

b) Amitriptyline

c) Trazodone

d) Mirtazapine

029. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant having least antimuscarinic effects: a) Trazodone

b) Buprorion

c) Mirtazapine

d) All of the above

030. Which of the following antidepressants has significant alfa2-adrenoreceptor antagonism?

a) Amitriptyline

b) Nefazodone

c) Mirtazapine

d) Doxepin

031. Indicate the main claim for an ideal antidepressant agent:

a) A faster onset of action

b) Fewer adverse sedative and autonomic effects

c) Fewer toxicity when overdoses are taken

d) All of the above

032. Sedation, peripheral atropine-like toxicity (e.g. Cycloplegia, tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation), orthostatic hypotension, arrhythmias, weight gain and sexual disturbances are possible adverse effects of:

a) Sertaline

b) Amitriptyline

c) Phenelsine

d) Bupropion

033. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be prescribed to patients with prostatic hypertrophy, glaucoma, coronary and cerebrovascular disease?

a) Amitriptyline

b) Paroxetine

c) Bupropion

d) Fluoxetine

034. Indicate the antidepressant agent, which is a phenyltolylpropylamine derivative:

a) Paroxetine

b) Maprotiline

c) Fluoxetine

d) Amitriptyline

035. The mechanism of fluoxetine action includes:

a) Selective inhibition of serotonine uptake in the CNS

b) Little effect on central norepinephrine or dopamine function

c) Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic receptors

d) All of the above

036. Which of the following antidepressants is used for treatment of eating disorders, especially buliemia?

a) Amitriptyline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Imipramine

d) Tranylcypromine

037. Sertaline and paroxetine are similar to fluoxetine in the mechanism of action and therapeutic use, sertaline is less likely to interact adversely with other drugs.

a) True

b) False

038. A highly selective serotonine reuptake inhibitor is:

a) Sertaline

b) Paroxetine

c) Fluoxetine

d) All of the above

PART IX Anxiolytic agents

001. Anxiolytics are used to treat:

a) Neurosis

b) Psychosis

c) Narcolepsy

d) Bipolar disorders

002. Anxiolytic agents should:

a) Relieve pain

b) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

c) Improve mood and behavior in patient with psychotic symptoms

d) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of a state of sleep

003. Anxiolytics are also useful for:

a) Treatment of epilepsy and seizures

b) Insomnia

c) Muscle relaxation in specific neuromuscular disorders

d) All of the above

004. Indicate the agents of choice in the treatment of most anxiety states:

a) Barbiturates

b) Benzodiazepines

c) Lithium salts

d) Phenothiazines

005. The choice of benzodiazepines for anxiety is based on:

a) A relatively high therapeutic index

b) Availability of flumazenil for treatment of overdose

c) A low risk of physiologic dependence

d) All of the above

006. Which of the following anxiolitics is a benzodiazepine derivative:

a) Buspirone

b) Clordiazepoxide

c) Meprobamate

d) Chloral hydrate

007. Indicate the benzodiazepine, which has the shortest elimination half-life:

a) Quazepam

b) Triazolam

c) Diazepam

d) Clorazepate

008. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest duration of action?

a) Triazolam

b) Clorazepate

c) Prazepam

d) Clordiazepoxide

009. Which of the following benzodiazepines is less likely to cause cumulative and residual effects with multiple doses?

a) Clorazepate

b) Quazepam

c) Lorazepam

d) Prazepam

010. Anxiolytic dosage reduction is recommended:

a) In patients taking cimetidine

b) In patients with hepatic dysfunction

c) In elderly patients

d) All of the above

011. Which of the following benzodiazepines is preferred for elderly patients?

a) Clorazepate

b) Clordiazepoxide

c) Triazolam

d) Prazepam

012. Which of the following anxiolytics is preferred in patient with limited hepatic function?

a) Buspirone

b) Quazepam

c) Diazepam

d) Chlordiazepoxide

013. Indicate the mechanism of hypnotic benzodiazepine action:

a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl- channel openings

b) Directly activating the chloride channels

c) Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening events

d) All of the above

014. Which of the following anxiolytics is a partial agonist of brain 5-HT1A receptors?

a) Buspirone

b) Alprozolam

c) Chlorazepat

d) Lorazepam

015. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors:

a) Flumazenil

b) Buspirone

c) Picrotoxin

d) Diazepam

016. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding:

a) Chlordiazepoxide

b) Bicuculline

c) Thiopental

d) Picrotoxin

017. Antianxiety agents have:

a) Sedative and hypnotic activity

b) Muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects

c) Amnesic properties

d) All of the above

018. Which of the following disadvantages does not limit using benzodiazepines as antianxiety agents?

a) Tendency to develop psychologic dependence

b) A high risk of drug interactions based on liver enzyme induction

c) Synergic CNS depression with concomitant use of other drugs

d) The formation of active metabolites

019. Indicate the anxiolitic agent, which relieves anxiety without causing marked sedative effects:

a) Diazepam

b) Chlordiazepoxid

c) Buspirone

d) Clorazepate

020. Which of the following anxiolytics has minimal abuse liability?

a) Oxazepam

b) Buspirone

c) Flumazenil

d) Alprazolam

021. In contrast to benzodiazepines, buspirone:

a) Interact directly with gabaergic system

b) Has more marked hypnotic, anticonvulsant, or muscle relaxant properties

c) Causes less psychomotor impairment and does not affect driving skills

d) Has maximal abuse liability

022. Which of the following sedative-hypnotic drugs does not potentiate the CNS depressant effects of ethanol, phenothiazines, or tricyclic antidepressants?

a) Buspirone

b) Phenobarbital

c) Diazepam

d) Chloralhydrate

023. Limitation of buspirone is:

a) A low therapeutic index

b) An extremely slow onset of action

c) A high potential of development of physical dependence

d) Impairment of mentation or motor functions during working hours

024. Which drugs may be used as antianxiety agents?

a) BETA-blocking drugs

b) Clonidine - a partial agonist of alfa2 receptors

c) Tricyclic antidepressants

d) All of the above

025. Which of the following benzodiazepines is more likely to cause “hangover” effects such as drowsiness, dysphoria, and mental or motor depression the following day?

a) Oxazepam

b) Triazolam

c) Clorazepat

d) Lorazepam

026. Additive CNS depression can be predicted if benzodiazepines are used with:

a) Ethanol

b) Morphine

c) Clorpromazine

d) All of the above

027. Which dosage of benzodiazepines for 60-90 days may produce severe withdrawal symptoms?

a) 50-60 mg/d

b) Less than 400 mg/d

c) More than 800 mg/d

d) Less than 40 mg/d

028. Restlessness, anxiety, orthostatic hypotension, generalized seizures, severe tremor, vivid hallucination, and psychosis are possible symptoms of:

a) Tolerance

b) Withdrawal

c) Drug interactions between barbiturate and diazepam

d) None of the above

029. Flumazenil is used to:

a) Reverse the CNS depressant effects of hypnotic benzodiazepines overdose

b) Hasten recovery following use of hypnotic benzodiazepines in anesthetic and diagnostic procedure

c) Reverse benzodiazepine-induced respiratory depression

d) All of the above

030. Flumazenil given intravenously:

a) Has intermediate onset and duration of action about 2 hours

b) Acts rapidly but has a short half-life

c) Has an effect lasting 3-5 hours

d) Has duration of action longer than 6 hours

PART X CNS stimulants

001. Agents, stimulating CNS are all of the following except:

a) Fluoxetine

b) Clozapine

c) Nootropil

d) Sydnocarb

002. Which of the following CNS stimulants are the agents of selective effect?

a) Analeptics

b) General tonics

c) Psychostimulants

d) Actoprotectors

003. Indicate CNC stimulating drugs, which are the agents of general action:

a) Nootropic agents

b) Analeptics

c) Psychostimulants

d) Antidepressants

004. Which of the following agents belongs to psychostimulants?

a) Meridil

b) Camphor

c) Piracetam

d) Pantocrin

005. Indicate the nootropic agent:

a) Sydnocarb

b) Eleuterococci extract

c) Fluoxetine

d) Piracetam

006. Which of the following agents is a respiratory analeptic?

a) Piracetam

b) Sydnocarb

c) Bemegride

d) Pantocrin

007. Indicate the CNC stimulating drug, which belongs to adaptogens:

a) Amphetamine

b) Eleuterococci extract

c) Caffeine

d) Sydnocarb

008. Actoprotectors are:

a) Stimulators, improving physical efficiency

b) Cognition enhancers, improving the highest integrative brain function

c) Stimulants, raising non-specific resistance towards stresses

d) Agents, stimulating the bulbar respiratory and vasomotor centers

009. Adaptogens cause:

a) Improvment of efficiency using physical loads and acceleration of recovery after the load

b) Stimulation of respiratory and vasomotor centers

c) Temporary relief of the feeling of tiredness, facilitating the professional work and fighting somnolence

d) Increased resistance towards stress situations and adaptation to extreme conditions

010. Indicate the CNS stimulants, which mitigate conditions of weakness or lack of tone within the entire organism or in particular organs?

a) Psychostimulants

b) Analeptics

c) General tonics

d) Antidepressants

011. Which of the following agents is a general tone-increasing drug of plant origin?

a) Meridil

b) Eleuterococci′s extract

c) Pantocrin

d) Caffeine

012. Indicate a general tone-increasing drug, which is an agent of animal origin?

a) Pantocrin

b) Amphetamine

c) Sydnocarb

d) Camphor

013. Amphetamine:

a) Is a powerful stimulant of the CNS

b) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center and has an analeptic action

c) Increases motor and speech activity, mood, decreases a sense of fatigue

d) All of the above

014. The mechanism of amphetamine action is related to:

a) Direct catecholamiergic agonist action

b) Inhibition of monoamine oxydase

c) Increasing a release of catecholaminergic neurotransmitters

d) All of the above

015. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is a piperidine derivative:

a) Meridil

b) Amphetamine

c) Caffeine

d) Sydnophen

016. Which of the following CNS psychostimulants is a sydnonymine derivative?

a) Caffeine

b) Sydnocarb

c) Meridil (methylphenidate hydrochloride)

d) Amphetamine

017. Sydnocarb causes:

a) Decreased sense of fatigue, it facilitates the professional work and fights somnolence

b) The feeling of prosperity, relaxation and euphoria

c) Influx of physical and mental forces, locomotive and speech excitation

d) Peripheral sympathomimetic action

018. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a methylxantine derivative:

a) Caffeine

b) Sydnocarb

c) Amphetamine

d) Meridil

019. Which of the following psychostimulants acts centrally mainly by blocking adenosine receptors?

a) Meridil

b) Caffeine

c) Amphetamine

d) Sydnophen

020. Principal properties of caffeine include all of the following EXEPT:

a) Cardiac analeptic (increase the rate and the force of the cardiac contraction)

b) Adaptogenic (rise non-specific resistance towards stresses and adapt to extraordinary challenges)

c) Psychoanaleptic (decrease the feeling of tiredness, facilitates the professional work and fights somnolence)

d) Respiratory analeptic (stimulate the bulbar respiratory center)

021. Caffeine can produce all of the following effects except:

a) Coronary vasodialation

b) Relaxation of bronchial and biliary tract smooth muscles

c) Vasodialation of cerebral vessels

d) Reinforcement of the contractions and increase of the striaated muscle work

022. Caffeine does not cause:

a) Inhibition of gastric secretion

b) Hyperglycemia

c) Moderate diuretic action

d) Increase in free fatty acids

023. Therapeutic uses of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Cardiovascular collapse and respiratory insufficiency

b) Migraine

c) Somnolence

d) Gastric ulceration

024. Adverse effects of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Arrhythmias

b) Insomnia

c) Hypotension

d) Psychomotor excitation

025. Principal properties of cordiamine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Cardiac analeptic

b) Respiratory analeptic

c) Coronarodilatator

d) Significant abuse potential

026. Сharacteristics of cordiamine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) It stimulates the CNS and facilitates the movement coordination

b) It is a respiratory analeptic of mixed action (stimulates both the medullar respiratory center and chemoreceptor of carotid sinus zone)

c) It decreases the aortic and coronary flow

d) It counteracts the central depression produced by other drugs (barbiturates)

027. Cordiamine is useful in the treatment of:

a) Hypotension

b) Coronary insufficiency

c) Respiratory insufficiency

d) All of the above

028. Respiratory and cardiac analeptics are all of the following agents EXCEPT:

a) Cordiamine

b) Bemegride

c) Caffeine

d) Camphor

029. Bemegride:

a) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center (central effect)

b) Stimulates hemoreceptors of carotid sinus zone (reflector action)

c) Is a mixed agent (both central and reflector effects)

d) Is a spinal analeptic

030. Which of the following CNS stimulants belongs to nootropics?

a) Camphor

b) Pantocrin

c) Sydnocarb

d) Piracetam

031. Characteristics of nootropics include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Selective influence on the brain

b) Improvement the ability to communicate with peers

c) Decline in the highest integrative brain functions

d) Increase in energetic exchange of the brain cells

032. Which of the following statements concerning nootropics is not correct?

a) They improve the highest integrative brain functions (memory, learning, understanding, thinking and the capacity for concentration)

b) They stimulate the bulbar respiratory center

c) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to optimum performance (adaptive capacity)

d) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to damaging influences, such as disturbances of the energy and neurotransmitter metabolism or ischemia (protective capacity)

033. Features of piracetam include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) It is a GABA derivative

b) It does not influence the neuro-vegetative function

c) Improvement begins in the 3′rd week

d) It has a high potential of toxicity

034. Piracetam can produce all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a) Antipsychotic

b) Anticonvulsant

c) Psychometabolic

d) Antihypoxic

035. Piracetam is widely used for the treatment of:

a) Senile dementia

b) Asthenia

c) Chronic alcoholism

d) All of the above

036. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is used in pediatric medicine, as it improves the communication with the child, increases the ability to study and communication with peers, improves school-performance?

a) Meridil

b) Piracetam

c) Bemegride

d) Amphetamine

037. Which of the following CNS stimulants is used for the cerebral stroke treatment?

a) Pantocrin

b) Sydnocarb

c) Piracetam

d) Caffeine

PART XI Drugs of abuse

001. Psychologic dependence is:

a) Decreased responsiveness to a drug following repeated exposure

b) A combination of certain drug-specific symptoms that occur on sudden discontinuation of a drug c) Compulsive drug-seeking behavior

d) All of the above

002. Tolerance is associated with:

a) An ability to compensate for the drug effect

b) Increased disposition of the drug after chronic use

c) Compensatory changes in receptors, effector enzymes, or membrane actions of the drug d) All of the above

003. Addiction is associated with the existence of:

a) Psychological dependence

b) Physiological dependence

c) Tolerance

d) All of the above

004. Substances causing narco- and glue sniffings are all of the following EXCEPT :

a) Stimulants

b) Antipsychotic drugs

c) Psychedelics

d) Sedative drugs

005. Which of the following abused drugs do not belong to sedative agents?

a) Barbiturates

b) Tranquilizers

c) Cannabinoids

d) Opioids

006. Psychedelics are all of following agents EXCEPT:

a) Cocaine

b) LSD

c) Marijuana

d) Volatile substances (glues, solvents, volatile nitrites and nitrous oxide)

007. In contrast to morphine, heroin is:

a) Used clinically

b) More addictive and fast-acting

c) More effective orally

d) Less potent and long-acting

008. Symptoms of opioid withdrawal begin 8-10 hours after the last dose.

a) True

b) False

009. The acute course of opioid withdrawal may last:

a) 3-4 days

b) 7-10 days

c) 3-4 weeks

d) 26-30 weeks

010. Indicate the sedative-hypnotic agent, which has the highest abuse potential:

a) Buspirone

b) Diazepam

c) Phenobarbital

d) Zolpidem

011. Characteristics of barbiturate intoxication (2-3 dose) include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Pleasant feelings of the “blow” in the head, vertigo, myasthenia, stupor

b) Perceptual distortion of surroundings, disorders of thinking, behavior

c) Locomotive, speech excitation, sharp swings from a cheerful mood to an aggressive state

d) Sleep with the subsequent weakness and headaches

012. Barbiturate abstinent syndrome is shown by:

a) Crisis by 3 day of abstention

b) Anxiety, mydriasis, myasthenia, muscular convulsions, vomiting, diarrhea

c) Psychosis as delirium (color visual and auditory hallucinations)

d) All of the above

013. Which one of the following tranquilizers belongs to strong euphorizing agents?

a) Mebicarum

b) Buspirone

c) Diazepam

d) Chlordiazepoxide

014. Tranquilizers intoxication (5-10 tablets) features include:

a) Euphoria, burst of energy, increase in motor activity, wave warmth all over the body

b) Visual hallucinations, a distorted feelling of time and space

c) Physical bliss, body lightness, a wish to fly, motionlessness

d) Synaesthesia (the sounds can be tensed, the colors can be heard)

015. Which of the following abused drugs is related to stimulants?

a) Cocaine

b) Amphetamine

c) Caffeine

d) All of the above

016. Cocaine exerts its central action by:

a) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase

b) Increasing a release of catecholaminergic neurotransmitters, including dopamine

c) Inhibiting dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake

d) Altering serotonin turnover

017. “Crack” is a derivative of:

a) Opium

b) LSD

c) Cocaine

d) Cannabis

018. Cocaine intoxication appears by:

a) Short clouding of consciousness, lightness of body and a feeling of flight

b) Wave warmth all over the body, physical bliss, motionlessness

c) Clear consciousness, improved mood, influx of physical and spiritual forces, locomotive and speech excitation, reappraisal of personality

d) All of the above

019. Which of the following stimulants is related to psychedelics?

a) “ecstasy” (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)

b) Cocaine

c) “crack” (cocaine free base)

d) Caffeine

020. Cocaine may cause:

a) Powerful vasoconstrictive reactions resulting in myocardial infarctions

b) The multiple brain perfusion defects

c) Spontaneous abortion during pregnancy

d) All of the above

021. Characteristics of cocaine abstinent syndrome include all of the following phases EXCEPT:

a) Feeling of depression, irritability, confusion, insomnia (the first 3 days)

b) Depression, apathy, excessive appetite, a wish to sleep (the subsequent 1-2 days)

c) Psychosis as color visual and auditory hallucinations (for 3 day)

d) New attack of depression, anxiety, irritability, dullness, intense thirst for cocaine (after 1-5 days improvement)

022. Overdoses of cocaine are usually rapidly fatal from:

a) Respiratory depression

b) Arrhythmias

c) Seizures

d) All of the above

023. Which of the following agents is related to hallucinogens?

a) Heroin

b) LSD

c) Cocaine

d) Opium

024. LSD produces:

a) Mood swings

b) Impaired memory, difficulty in thinking, poor judgment

c) Perceptual distortion

d) All of the above

025. LSD decreases in brain:

a) 5-HT2 receptor densities

b) GABAA-benzodiazepine receptor densities

c) Adrenergic receptor densities

d) D2 receptor densities

026. Which of the following agents is related to cannabis?

a) Heroin

b) Ecstasy

c) Hashish

d) Crack

027. The early stage of cannabis intoxication is characterized by:

a) Euphoria, uncontrolled laugher

b) Alteration of time sense, depersonalization

c) Sharpened vision

d) All of the above

028. Which of the following physiologic signs is a characteristic of cannabis intoxication?

a) Bradycardia

b) Reddening of the conjunctiva

c) Miosis

d) Nausea and vomiting

029. Industrial solvent inhalation causes:

a) Quick intoxication, lasting only 5-15 minutes

b) Euphoria, relaxed “drunk” feeling

c) Disorientation, slow passage of time and possible hallucinations

d) All of the above

030. Indicate the drugs of choice for reversing the withdrawal syndrome:

a) Benzodiazepines

b) Neuroleptics

c) Antidepressants

d) All of the above

PART XII General anesthetics

001. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:

a) Analgesia

b) Loss of consciousness, inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes

c) Amnesia

d) All of the above

002. Inhaled anesthetics and intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties:

a) Directly activate GABAA receptors

b) Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors

c) Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission

d) Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels

003. Indicate the anesthetic, which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors:

a) Thiopental

b) Halothane

c) Ketamine

d) Sevoflurane

004. An ideal anesthetic drug would:

a) Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure rapid recovery

b) Posses a wide margin of safety

c) Be devoid of adverse effects

d) All of the above

005. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?

a) Thiopental

b) Desfluran

c) Ketamine

d) Propofol

006. Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously:

a) Propofol

b) Halothane

c) Desflurane

d) Nitrous oxide

007. Which of the following inhalants is a gas anesthetic?

a) Halothane

b) Isoflurane

c) Nitrous oxide

d) Desflurane

008. Sevoflurane has largely replaced halothane and isoflurane as an inhalation anesthetic of choice because:

a) Induction of anesthesia is achieved more rapidly and smoothly

b) Recovery is more rapid

c) It has low post- anesthetic organ toxicity

d) All of the above

009. The limitation of sevoflurane is:

a) High incidence of coughing and laryngospasm

b) Chemically unstable

c) Centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise of BP and HR

d) Hepatotoxicity

010. Which of the following inhalants lacks sufficient potency to produce surgical anesthesia by itself and therefore is commonly used with another inhaled or intravenous anesthetic?

a) Halothane

b) Sevoflurane

c) Nitrous oxide

d) Desflurane

011. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Desflurane

c) Sevoflurane

d) All of the above

012. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:

a) Isoflurane

b) Halothane

c) Desflurane

d) Nitrous oxide

013. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics causes centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise in blood pressure and heart rate?

a) Desflurane

b) Sevoflurane

c) Nitrous oxide

d) Isofurane

014. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which decreases the ventilatory response to hypoxia: a) Sevoflurane

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Desflurane

d) Halothane

015. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an induction agent of choice in patient with airway problems?

a) Desfurane

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Halothane

d) None of the above

016. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which causes the airway irritation:

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Sevoflurane

c) Halothane

d) Desflurane

017. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics increases cerebral blood flow least of all?

a) Sevoflurane

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Isoflurane

d) Desflurane

018. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which should be avoided in patients with a history of seizure disorders:

a) Enflurane

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Sevoflurane

d) Desflurane

019. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics can produce hepatic necrosis?

a) Soveflurane

b) Desflurane

c) Halothane

d) Nitrous oxide

020. Indicated the inhaled anesthetic, which may cause nephrotoxicity:

a) Halothane

b) Soveflurane

c) Nitrous oxide

d) Diethyl ether

021. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics decreases metheonine synthase activity and causes megaloblastic anemia?

a) Desflurane

b) Halothane

c) Nitrous oxide

d) Soveflurane

022. Unlike inhaled anesthetics, intravenous agents such as thiopental, etomidate, and propofol:

a) Have a faster onset and rate of recovery

b) Provide a state of conscious sedation

c) Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia

d) All of the above

023. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:

a) Fentanyl

b) Thiopental

c) Midazolam

d) Ketamine

024. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:

a) Midazolam

b) Thiopental

c) Ketamin

d) Propofol

025. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative actions of intravenous benzodiazepines?

a) Naloxone

b) Flumazenil

c) Ketamine

d) Fomepizole

026. Neuroleptanalgesia has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a) Droperidol and fentanyl are commonly used

b) It can be used with nitrous oxide to provide neuroleptanesthesia

c) Hypertension is a common consequence

d) Confusion and mental depression can occur as adverse effects

027. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?

a) Thiopental

b) Propofol

c) Ketamine

d) Fentanyl

028. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which causes minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depressant effects:

a) Propofol

b) Thiopental

c) Etomidate

d) Midazolam

029. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:

a) Midazolam

b) Ketamine

c) Fentanyl

d) Thiopental

030. Ketamine anesthesia is associated with:

a) Cardiovascular stimulation

b) Increased cerebral blood flow, oxygen consumption and intracranial pressure

c) Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams following anesthesia

d) All of the above